1:  Defined by Allport (1935) as a “mental state of readiness, organized through experience, exerting a directing or dynamic influence on the individual’s response to situations,” this is known as a(n)
 A: Cognition
 B: Behavior
 C: Dissonance
 D: Attitude
 E: Perception
2:  The Tri-Component model suggests that human attitudes have 3 factors, that are:
 A: Love, Intimacy, Passion
 B: Biological, Chemical, Learned
 C: Physical, Mental, Spiritual
 D: Behavioral, Mechanical, Mental
 E: Actions, Beliefs, Feelings
3:  Festinger (1957) suggested _________ to refer to when we perceive an inconsistency between two or more of our internal attitudes or between our behavior and attitudes.
 A: Attitude Shift
 B: Cognitive Dissonance
 C: Disequilibrium
 D: Psychoneurotic
 E: Perceptual Illusion
4:  Attitudes are very individual and subjective, and therefore we do not currently have ways to measure an employee’s attitude about their jobs.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
5:  The process by which we interpret and organize sensory information to produce a meaningful experience of the world, is known as _______.
 A: Attitude
 B: Perception
 C: Cognition
 D: Intuition
 E: Judgment
6:  When a person limits their processing of information by only paying attention to certain select information based on prior experience, beliefs or attitudes, this is called ___________
 A: Dual Stimulation
 B: Cognitive Deficit
 C: Selective Attention
 D: Reverse Filtering
 E: Registration
7:  If we claim an outside force motivated an event this is known as ________ compared with when we assign causal factors to ourselves or a person, known as __________.
 A: Extraverted; Self-serving bias
 B: Internal Locus of Control; External Locus of Control
 C: Internal Attribution; External Attribution
 D: External Attribution; Internal Attribution
 E: Public Perception Management, Internal Perception Management
8:  Preconceived thoughts or beliefs can affect whether or not we hear opinions or information that does not agree with our preconceived thoughts
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
9:  Managers make attributions about employees based on “consistency” and “distinctiveness” as well as _____________ which is “the extent to which an employee’s performance is the same or different from other employees”
 A: Attributes
 B: Stereotype
 C: Consensus
 D: Differentiation
 E: Habit
10:  A hich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personalityhich of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality, but is therefore also perceived to be a good hospital for Gastric surgeries as well. This generalized carryover based on just one characteristic is known as __________
 A: Stereotype
 B: Placebo Effect
 C: Horn Effect
 D: Halo Effect
 E: Angel syndrome
11:  When a person evaluates another person as generally low on many traits after observing poor performance on just one trait… this negative carryover effect is known as _______
 A: Stereotype
 B: Placebo Effect
 C: Horn Effect
 D: Halo Effect
 E: Angel syndrome
12:  From reading about the “contrast effect” in person perception, we know that if compared to a highly attractive person, a target person will be judged as ____________ than s/he would have been if rated on his or her own.
 A: More attractive
 B: Less attractive
 C: Neutral – contrasts have no effects on judgment of attractiveness
 D: Less attractive if male, more attractive if female
 E: None of the above
13:  A defensive mechanism where we attribute our own attitudes onto someone else, such as “My friend tempted me with a desert and made me go off my diet.”
 A: Procrastination
 B: Projection
 C: Prosocialization
 D: Halo Effect
 E: Stereotyping
14:  Overly generalized, and typically negative, views about a group of people is known as a __________
 A: Stereotype
 B: Projection
 C: Halo Effect
 D: Pygmalion Effect
 E: Sublimation
15:  Price Waterhouse v. Hopkins was a legal case where a female lawyer claimed discrimination based on gender stereotyped statements
A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
16:  Another name for the “self fulfilling prophesy” where individuals tend to live up to other’s stated expectations about us
 A: Stereotype
 B: Projection
 C: Halo Effect
 D: Pygmalion Effect
 E: Sublimation
17:  Employee selection can be aided by the use of _________ which is the general use of measurements of human ability, personality, potential and other factors
 A: I.Q. testing
 B: Personality testing
 C: Psychometrics
 D: Rorschach (inkblot) tests
 E: None of the above
18:  It’s a good idea for a manager to hire workers exclusively based on the score of a personality test.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
19:  Extroverts do best in quiet, non-social jobs such as computer work, while Introverts show the best job performance when they must work and present in front of large groups of people
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
20:  Which of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality traits measured with personality tests?
 A: Neuroticism
 B: Spirituality
 C: Extroversion
 D: Agreeableness
 E: Openness
1:  Motivation is described as the conscious or unconscious stimulus, incentive, or motives for action towards a goal resulting from psychological or social factors, the factors giving the purpose or direction to behavior.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
2:  The three components of the process of motivation are:
 A: goals, incentives, and behavior
 B: behavior, wants, and direction
 C: incentives, behavior and goals
 D: unsatisfied need, drive, and satisfied need
3:  The content theories of motivation focus on the assumption that individuals are motivated by the desire to satisfy their inner needs.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
4:  Process theories of motivation focus on the cognitive processes underlying an individual’s level of motivation.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
5:  The levels in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are:
 A: growth, relatedness, and existence
 B: satisfiers, physiological, relatedness, self-esteem, and safety
 C: physiological, affiliation, safety, self-actualization, and self-esteem
 D: hygiene, affiliation, safety, satisfiers, and self-actualization
 E: self-actualization, self-esteem, affiliation, safety, and physiological
6:  Employee motivation has a direct impact on a health services organization’s performance
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
7:  According to Alderfer, individuals must satisfy their lower level needs, at least to an acceptable state, before the person can be motivated to achieve higher level needs.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
8:  Managers need to be conscious of the fact that all employees are not driven by the same needs, nor is any employee driven by the same need, at the same time.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
9:  Alder’s ERG theory like Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs requires an individual to satisfy a lower level need for a higher-level need to become the driver of a person’s behavior.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
10:  The three categories of Alderfer’s ERG theory are:
 A: existence, relatedness, and gain
 B: existence, relatedness, and growth
 C: extrinsic, recognition, and growth
 D: environment, recognition, and gain
11:  The frustration-regression principle of the ERG theory explains that when a barrier prevents an individual from obtaining a higher level need, a person may “regress” to a lower-level need (or visa versa) to achieve satisfaction.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
12:  Although an employee may have multiple needs to satisfy, managers must focus exclusively on one need at a time will to be effective in motivating an employee.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
13:  According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory, motivators do not include:
 A: salary
 B: recognition
 C: responsibility
 D: work itself
 E: advancement
14:  According to Herzberg, the opposite of job satisfaction is job dissatisfaction.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
15:  Hygiene factors relate to job content and motivators/satisfiers relate to job context.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
16:  Employees will be motivated to do work that they perceive to be significant.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
17:  Which of the following is not one of the five core motivational job characteristics identified by Hackman and Oldham?
 A: skill variety
 B: task significance
 C: autonomy
 D: feedback
 E: advancement
18:  The three types of motivational needs identified by McClelland are:
 A: advancement, power, and affiliation
 B: power, affiliation, and growth
 C: affiliation, growth, and advancement
 D: achievement, power and affiliation
19:  Each content theory of motivation is separate, distinct, and unrelated.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
20:  Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs had a great influence on the study of organizational behavior.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
1:  Conflict is inevitable and unavoidable
A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
2:  Conflict occurs when an individual or group feels negatively affected by another individual or group.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
3:  Although there are numerous definitions of conflict, there are two common components to most definitions: (1) perceived incompatibility of interests, and (2) some interdependence of the parties.
 A: 0
 B: 0
 C: 0
 D: 0
 E: 0
4:  Because all conflict leads to ineffectiveness, managers must create an organizational culture of cooperation.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
5:  Conflict occurs when the ideas and thoughts within an individual or between individuals are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict?
 A: goal
 B: cognitive
 C: affective
 D: procedural
6:  Conflict occurs when two or more desired or expected outcomes are incompatible. This is an example of what type of conflict?
 A: goal
 B: cognitive
 C: affective
 D: procedural
7:  _________________ happens when several alternative courses of action are available and when the outcome is important to the individual whether positive or negative.
 A: Intrapersonal cognitive conflict
 B: Intrapersonal affective conflict
 C: Intrapersonal goal conflict
8:  The following is an example of what type of intrapersonal conflict, When an individual must choose an alternative that is expected to have both positive and negative outcomes.
 A: Avoidance/avoidance
 B: Approach/approach
 C: Approach/avoidance
9:  Cognitive dissonance occurs when individuals recognize inconsistencies in their thoughts and behavior.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
10:  _____________ occurs when the expectations associated with a work role are incompatible with the individual’s needs, values, or ethics.
 A: Person-role conflict
 B: Intrarole conflict
 C: Interrole conflict
 D: Interpersonal conflict
11:  _______________ involves two or more individuals who believe that their attitudes, behaviors, or preferred goals are in opposition.
 A: Intrapersonal conflict
 B: Interpersonal conflict
 C: Intragroup conflict
 D: Intergroup conflict
 E: Interorganizational conflict
12:  A lack of communication skills combined with our personal and cultural differences, creates powerful deficits in our ability to relate to each other. Because of this broad-based inadequacy, interpersonal conflicts regularly emerge.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
13:  There are three types of intragroup conflict: (1) relationship, (2) task, and (3) process.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
14:  Of the four categories of intergroup conflict, which one relates authority relationships?
 A: Vertical conflict
 B: Horizontal conflict
 C: Line-staff conflict
 D: Diversity-based conflict
15:  What type of intergroup conflict may occur when supervisors attempt to control subordinates?
 A: Vertical conflict
 B: Horizontal conflict
 C: Line-staff conflict
 D: Diversity-based conflict
16:  Integration of organizations that involves extensive linking of providers at different points in the patient care continuum causes the lowest level of interorganizational conflict.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
17:  Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a win-lose approach to conflict?
 A: Avoidance
 B: Accommodation
 C: Competition
 D: Compromise
 E: Collaboration
18:  Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one reflects a win-win approach to conflict?
 A: Avoidance
 B: Accommodation
 C: Competition
 D: Compromise
 E: Collaboration
19:  Of the five conflict-handling modes, which one involves unassertive and uncooperative behaviors?
 A: Avoidance
 B: Accommodation
 C: Competition
 D: Compromise
 E: Collaboration
20:  Individuals use the bounded rationality model to decision-making when there is sufficient time for an orderly, thoughtful process.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
21:  The rational model is considered the “ideal” method of decision-making.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
22:  Managers are under the constraints of limited time and resources, personal bias and other factors, which make rational decision-making unrealistic.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
23:  The expression “bounded rationality” is used to denote the type of rationality that managers resort to when the environment in which they operate is too complex relative to their cognitive limitations.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
24:  _______________ decision-making involves using one’s professional judgment based on past experiences rather than sequential logic or explicit reasoning
 A: Bounded rationality
 B: Intuition
 C: Heuristics
 D: Biases
25:  _______________ are guidelines or “rules of thumb” that help make our world manageable by simplifying complex tasks
 A: Bounded rationality
 B: Intuition
 C: Heuristics
 D: Biases
26:  _____________ bias is an intuitive technique where the perceived probability of an event is influenced by the ease of recollection.

 A: Adjustment
 B: Anchoring
 C: Representativeness
 D: Availability
27:  High quality decision-making is attributable to escalation of commitment by a manager.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
28:  Framing heuristic is a tendency to make a decision based on the form or manner in which information is presented.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
29:  Managers differ along two dimensions in the way they approach decision-making: value orientation and tolerance for ambiguity. Value orientation reflects the extent to which a person has a high need for structure or control in his or her life.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
30:  Of the four basic decision styles, which one is associated with high tolerance for ambiguity and a high cognitive complexity?
 A: Directive
 B: Analytic
 C: Conceptual
 D: Behavioral
31:  Of the four basic decision styles, which one is associated with low tolerance for ambiguity and low cognitive complexity with a focus on technical decisions?
 A: Directive
 B: Analytic
 C: Conceptual
 D: Behavioral
32:  With training, managers can use all four decision styles effectively as different situations are presented, however, individuals have a tendency to resort to a single, dominant style (i.e., default mode of decision making).
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
33:  Negotiation may be defined as the process by which two or more parties decide what each will give and take in an exchange.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
34:  ____________ negotiation is often referred to as “hard-bargaining” or a win-lose, zero-sum approach.
 A: Integrative
 B: Interactive
 C: Distributive
 35:  ___________ negotiation is a cooperative, interest-based, agreement-oriented approach to dealing with conflict that is viewed as a “win/win” or mutual gain dispute.
 A: Integrative
 B: Interactive
 C: Distributive
1:  Groups can be categorized into three broad groups: primary, secondary, and reference.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
2:  ____________ groups are those that we compare ourselves to for developing our personal behavior and social attitudes.
 A: Primary
 B: Secondary
 C: Reference
 D: Formal
 E: Informal
3:  __________ groups are organized based on members’ common interests or goals.
 A: Primary
 B: Secondary
 C: Reference
 D: Formal
 E: Informal
4:  Managers need to be aware that ____________ groups can be a powerful force within their organization.
 A: Primary
 B: Secondary
 C: Reference
 D: Formal
 E: Informal
5:  __________ groups are created by the organization, therefore, they are part of the organization’s formal structure.
 A: Primary
 B: Secondary
 C: Reference
 D: Formal
 E: Informal
6:  Groups go through sequential stages of development. The following is as example of what development stage: High levels of emotion because members are trying to find their group identity and exert their individuality.
 A: Forming
 B: Storming
 C: Norming
 D: Performing
 E: Adjourning
7:  Groups go through sequential stages of development. The following is as example of what development stage: In this stage the rules for behavior are explicitly and implicitly defined. There is a greater degree of order and a strong sense of group membership.
 A: Forming
 B: Storming
 C: Norming
 D: Performing
 E: Adjourning
8:  The group decision making process usually takes longer than an individual decision making process.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
9:  Groups produce less and lower quality solutions to problems than do individuals working alone, because there are too many people involved in group decision making.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
10:  There are four factors that play an important part regarding the quality of a group’s decision: (1) the group should be diverse, (2) members need be feel that they are in a “safe” environment so their ideas can be expressed freely, (3) the degree of task interdependence must be high, and (4) the group must have the potency for success.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
11:  The nominal group technique is a brainstorming technique that assists to overcome the challenge faced by group members who may lack the experience to understand that the information they hold is needed to generate and evaluate options or alternatives.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
1:  Organization development incorporates which of the following characteristics:
 A: use of a behavioral scientist
 B: rapid response to change
 C: systematic approach
 D: a and b only
 E: a and c only
2:  All change in organizations should be considered an Organizational Development initiative.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
3:  Behavioral science is important in OD because:
 A: organizations should have an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) to help employees through any change process
 B: understanding relationships is critical to the change process
 C: organizations should have an understanding of how members react to change
 D: all of the above
 E: b and c
4:  The role of the OD Practitioner is to:
 A: facilitate the change process
 B: work closely with the organization
 C: have ultimate accountability for the success off the change
 D: work with the client to understand and move forward with the change process successfully
5:   Which of the following is an important skill set of an OD Practitioner?
 A: technical skills
 B: interpersonal skills
 C: consulting skills
 D: none of the above
 E: all of the above
6:  It is better to hire an external consultant versus using an OD professional who is an employee of the organization because the external consultant will be able to psychological distance him/herself from the organization .
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
7:  Which of the following is an advantage to utilizing an external consultant?
 A: knowledge of the organization
 B: better data collection expertise
 C: knowledge and experience of a particular intervention
 D: a lack of objectivity
8:  Which of the following is an advantage to utilizing an internal consultant (i.e., employee of the organization)?
 A: knowledge of the organization
 B: better data collection expertise
 C: knowledge and experience of a particular intervention
 D: a lack of objectivity
9:  The goal of action research is to base the intervention on initial research, then to follow up the process with feedback through further data analysis to determine the effectiveness or impact, make adjustments as necessary, and ultimately use the results to feed additional research.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
10:  During the __________ phase of the action research model, mutual expectations are identified.
 A: entering and contracting
 B: diagnosis
 C: feedback
 D: action
11:  The ___________ phase involves a strategic collection and analysis of data from the organization.
 A: entering and contracting
 B: diagnosis
 C: feedback
 D: action
12:  The most frequently used method of data collection is:
 A: questionnaires
 B: interviews
 C: observation
 D: unobtrusive methods
13:  Financial reports, turnover rates, exit interviews and customer satisfaction reults are all examples of what type of data collection?
 A: questionnaires
 B: interviews
 C: observation
 D: unobtrusive methods
14:  The “Hawthorne effect” in one potential pitfall of the observation method of data collection.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
15:  Which data collection method might enable the practitioner to learn more about communication patterns, leadership issues, or ineffective conflict resolution strategies in the team?
 A: questionnaires
 B: interviews
 C: observation
 D: unobtrusive methods
16:  Changing from a functional to a matrix structure is an example of which type of intervention?
 A: strategic
 B: technostructural
 C: human process
 D: human resource management
17:  Which of the following interventions deal primarily with issues between people in an organization?
 A: strategic
 B: technostructural
 C: human process
 D: human resource management
18:  A career planning system is an example of which type of intervention?
 A: strategic
 B: technostructural
 C: human process
 D: human resource management
19:  A diversification in products is an example of which type of intervention?
 A: strategic
 B: technostructural
 C: human process
 D: human resource management
20:  The true test of an organizational intervention is the outcome.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
21:  The goal of process improvement interventions is to increase efficiency.
 A: TRUE
 B: FALSE
22:  This intervention is designed to enable groups of people to work together on a single problem, and through a regimented process utilizing specific problem solving tools.
 A: team building
 B: process improvement
 C: total quality management
 D: work design
23:  Which of the following intervention is mistakenly often seen as the only intervention needed, but the goal of this intervention should be to build or improve a skill base?
 A: team building
 B: process improvement
 C: training
 D: work design