Federal Government Contracting

Exam Name: 601-22 Course ID: 601-2014 Print Save As
1) Which of the following is not an element of the PR?
A) Packaging
B) Place of performance
C) Project management
D) IGE
E) None of the above
2) What is another term for continuing appropriations?
A) No year
B) Multiple year
C) Ongoing
D) Unrestricted
3) Which is not an alternative to insufficient funding?
A) Purchase rather than lease
B) Obtaining additional funding
C) Reduce the scope of work
D) Decreasing the quantity to be procured
E) None of the above
4) When making an independent estimate, __________ is/are used.
A) Hourly estimates
B) Requirements volatility
C) Market research
D) Personal counts
5) Elements of the PR do not include:
A) Funding
B) Description of work
C) Delivery date
D) Acquisition plan
E) Acceptance criteria
6) Budget authority is provided by a(n):
A) Commitment
B) Appropriation
C) Contract
D) Authorization
E) Certification
7) A written record of a conference must be provided to:
A) Conference attendees
B) Proposal providers
C) Previous offerors
D) All prospective offerors
8) Which of the following does not represent a requirement in the RFP?
A) Statement of Objectives
B) Contract Data Requirements List
C) Statement of Work
D) Specifications
E) None of the above
9) The evaluation method that allows the most discretion in selecting a source is:
A) Sealed bidding
B) Alpha contracting
C) Trade-off
D) Best value
E) Low price technically acceptable
10) Non-price factors in commercial procurements include only:
A) Technical capability and price
B) Past performance and price-related
C) Past performance and business-related
D) Technical and past performance
E) None of the above
11) A rental factor may be applied in evaluations for:
A) Contractor-owned equipment
B) Large business advantage
C) Customer property in contractor possession
D) Off-shore bidders
E) Non-profit organizations
12) __________ should be used to the maximum extent practicable in __________ solicitations.
A) SF 1440; commercial
B) SF 1449; noncommercial
C) SF 33, noncommercial
D) SF 1449, commercial
E) SF 30, commercial
13) Price analysis is not used when:
A) It is a cost type contract
B) The proposed price is below $550,000
C) An award fee arrangement is proposed
D) Cost elements are analyzed
E) None of the above
14) Which of these is not a price analysis technique?
A) Market research
B) Labor rate analysis
C) Cost estimating relationship
D) Independent estimate
E) All of the above
15) The use of comparison of proposed prices, evaluation of CERs, and in-depth estimating methods based on cost
or pricing data is called:
A) Blended analysis
B) Supplemental analysis
C) Comparative analysis
D) Should cost analysis
E) None of the above
16) Which is an indicator of lack of adequate price competition?
A) Two or more sources
B) Sources priced independently
C) An offeror has a determinate advantage
D) Qualified sources could not bid
E) (c) and (d) above
17) Pricing, sales and cost information that may need to be submitted but not certified is called:
A) Cost or pricing data
B) Price comparison data
C) Other than cost or pricing data
D) Cost realism data
E) Supporting data
18) Price analysis does not have to be done on:
A) Contracts under $600,000
B) Micropurchases
C) Simplified acquisition
D) Competitive proposals
E) None of the above
19) Estimating formulas that have both dependent and independent variables are called:
A) Estametric formulas
B) Parametric formulas
C) Price index formulas
D) Price curve formulas
E) None of the above
20) In using independent estimates, which of the following factors may have a significant effect but also be the
hardest to determine?
A) Timing of estimate
B) Quantities used for the estimate
C) Estimating optimism
D) Source of the estimate
E) None of the above
21) Cost realism analysis can be performed on:
A) Cost-reimbursement contracts
B) Incentive contracts
C) Award fee contracts
D) Fixed-price contracts
E) All of the above
22) Price or cost objectives for negotiation should always be selected based on:
A) Low price
B) Percent reduction
C) Estimates
D) Dollar amounts
E) All of the above
23) A contractor cannot normally be determined non-responsible based:
A) On lack of necessary facilities
B) Solely on lack of relevant performance history
C) On compliance with delivery schedule
D) On financial resources
E) On business ethics
24) The statement of work (SOW) is also known as:
A) Work scope
B) Technical requirement
C) System description
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
25) The performance-based statement of work:
A) Does not include positive and/or negative performance incentives
B) Should include application of only selected aspects of the total PBSC methodology
C) Must define work in completion terms
D) None of the above
26) Failure to describe adequately __________ in the RFP could result in the submission of proposals that vary in
responsiveness from totally nonresponsive to the partially responsive.
A) The scope of work to be done
B) The critical evaluation criteria
C) The areas to be heavily weighed
D) All of the above
27) Which of the following is not a sign the RFP may need more streamlining?
A) An Executive Summary that is a cut and paste job using extracts from the statement of work
B) An evaluation process in Section M that is too complex
C) Cost performance reporting not tailored to fit the acquisition
D) Extensive uses of government furnished material and government furnished equipment
E) None of the above
28) __________ statement of work is the preferred method of stating needs.
A) Design/detail
B) Level-of-effort
C) Performance-based
D) None of the above
29) The statement of objectives is:
A) Listed in Section H of the RFP
B) Used for service contracts where the tasks are so specific that no alternative exists
C) Detailed and customer developed
D) Designed to address product-oriented goals rather than performance requirements
30) Performance specifications should contain requirements that have the characteristics of being:
A) Quantitative rather than qualitative
B) Verifiable
C) Material and process independent
D) All of the above
31) In more complex source selections, the plan for selecting a best value source is called the:
A) Source Selection Plan
B) Technical Evaluation Plan
C) Acquisition Plan
D) None of the above
32) In most cases the __________ is the selection official.
A) Contracting officer
B) Agency head
C) Program Manager
D) None of the above
33) Which of the following should be provided for in standard internal procedures established for proposal
preparation?
A) The quality of the reproduction and binding
B) A list of illustrations needed
C) The development of the initial proposal plan and outline
D) All of the above
34) The final proposal coordination meeting should be held no later than __________ in advance of the date that the
proposal must be sent to the customer.
A) Two weeks
B) One week
C) Five days
D) One day
35) A bad proposal is worse than no proposal at all because:
A) It will not win
B) It may hurt the company’s reputation
C) Preparation takes time needed elsewhere
D) All of the above
36) In proposals where written acceptance by the Government would create a binding contract, the proposal will be
requested on:
A) Standard Form 18
B) Standard Form 33
C) Standard Form 10
D) Standard Form 36
37) When decisions are made not to bid:
A) A form letter should be sent to the customers
B) A special letter should be sent to the customer
C) The customer should be telegraphed this decision
D) The customer need not be notified
38) A proposal is an offer to:
A) Supply a product
B) Perform a service
C) Combination of both
D) All of the above
39) The amount of investment to apply to the preproposal and proposal effort should be:
A) A fixed amount set by top management for all programs
B) As much as it takes to produce a top quality proposal
C) Based on the total benefit which can be expected from the program
D) A flat rate of $1,000
40) Which of the following is not a leading economic characteristic of the Government market?
A) It is a one-customer market
B) Price is the only factor considered
C) Market requirements change rapidly
D) Contractors possess a high degree of specialization of skills and facilities
41) The marketing research organization:
A) Obtains information about the present and future characteristics of the government market that are
important to the continued success of the firm
B) Furnishes a complete marketing program to management
C) Prepares the proposal
D) All of the above
42) Sound pricing involves quoting a price:
A) In excess of an average cost price to insure an adequate profit margin
B) High enough to cover the variable cost of performance plus the maximum contribution toward fixed cost
and profit attainable
C) Which always includes a profit margin in excess of 10%
D) Which insures against all contingencies that could conceivably surface during the performance of the
work
E) All of the above
43) Market pricing involves a price which is:
A) Equal to a marginal price
B) Equal to an average cost price
C) In excess of an average cost price
D) Always more than the price of a competitor
E) None of the above
44) Average cost pricing:
A) Is the only accurate pricing technique
B) Distinguishes clearly between cost and price
C) Is considered scientific pricing
D) Is an arbitrary allocation of cost
E) Reflects competition adequately
45) __________ pricing is used: (1) to maximize profit; (2) to reduce loss; (3) to secure a position in a program; (4)
to maintain a position in a program; (5) to develop product lines and to diversify; and (6) to utilize unused
capacity and maintain skilled personnel.
A) Average cost
B) Market
C) Competitive
D) Marginal
E) None of the above
46) __________ estimating has the advantage of speed of application and is relatively inexpensive.
A) Round table
B) Comparison
C) Detailed
D) Parametric
47) It is during the __________ phase that make or buy decisions are firmed up and value engineering is performed.
A) Research
B) Design engineering
C) Detailed engineering
D) Production
48) On the basis of profit as a percentage of sales, Government contractors:
A) Do better than their counterparts in commercial industry
B) Do not do as well as their counterparts in commercial industry
C) Do exactly the same as their counterparts in commercial industry
D) Make an average of 16%
49) __________ is used in the negotiation of prices for the settlement of fixed price contracts terminated for the
convenience of the Government.
A) Forward pricing
B) Retrospective pricing
C) Estimated pricing
D) Commercial pricing
50) The requirement for submission of cost or pricing data by the prime contractor extends to:
A) Only the prime contractor’s in-house work
B) The first tier subcontractors
C) All tiers of subcontractors
D) The first and second tier subcontractors
51) The purpose of post award audits is to determine:
A) Whether or not defective cost or pricing data was submitted
B) Profit-cost relationships
C) Whether contingencies cited by the contractor materialized
D) All of the above
52) Cost or pricing data must be furnished if the price is based on:
A) Adequate price competition
B) Prices set by law
C) An established price of a commercial item
D) None of the above
53) Selling costs are:
A) Allowable
B) Unallowable
C) Illegal costs
D) None of the above
54) Which of the following statements about advance agreements is untrue?
A) Advance agreements may only be negotiated before a contract
B) Advance agreements must be in writing
C) Advance agreements may not provide that costs that are otherwise determined to be unallowable in the
cost principle will be allowable
D) None of the above
55) Which of the following costs are allowable?
A) Bad debts
B) Contributions and donations
C) Entertainment of government personnel
D) Normal depreciation
E) None of the above
56) The Comptroller General, in 1968, was ordered by the __________ to undertake a study of Cost Accounting
Standards.
A) House
B) President
C) Secretary of Treasury
D) Congress
E) None of the above
57) If a contractor has a Cost Accounting Standards clause in his contract, he must comply with:
A) All Cost Accounting Standards in effect on the date of contract award
B) Only those Standards determined to be applicable to him by the Administrative Contracting Officer
C) Only new Cost Accounting Standards which come into effect during the term of the contract
D) Cost Accounting Standards 401 to 410
E) None of the above
58) Modified CAS coverage requires:
A) A contractor to comply with Cost Accounting Standards 401, 402, 405 and 406
B) A contractor to comply with Cost Accounting Standards 401 through 408
C) A contractor to comply with Cost Accounting Standards 401 through 412
D) None of the above
59) Displaying emotion at the negotiation table should:
A) Never be done
B) Be done only for effect
C) Be restricted to the principal negotiator
D) Be done only as a last resort
60) The agenda for negotiation is established by the:
A) Government negotiator
B) Mutual agreement of both sides
C) Contractor’s negotiator
D) Mediator
61) Which of the following is an attribute of a good negotiator?
A) Ease of expression
B) Ability to analyze
C) Possession of a sense of humor
D) All of the above
62) In all contracts except __________ the government inserts requirements for the approval of subcontracts.
A) Fixed price
B) Fixed price with economic price adjustment
C) Cost plus fixed fee
D) Both (a) and (b)
E) Both (a) and (c)
63) It is the policy of the government to use __________ contracts whenever possible.
A) Firm fixed price
B) Fixed price with economic price adjustment
C) Cost
D) Cost plus fixed fee
E) Time and material
64) Electricity is an example of a __________ overhead cost.
A) Fixed
B) Variable
C) Semi-variable
D) Partially unallowable cost
65) The __________ rating method is used to indicate the degree to which the offeror’s proposal has met the
standard for each factor evaluated.
A) Adjectival
B) Color coding
C) Numerical
D) Narrative
E) All of the above
66) A purpose of the debriefing is to:
A) Debate or defend the government’s award decision
B) Analyze the offeror’s proposal page-by-page
C) Reduce misunderstandings and protests
D) Compare point by point the proposals of the debriefed offeror and the successful offeror
67) Which of the following statements about a debriefing is untrue?
A) If an offeror submits an untimely request for a debriefing, the contracting officer does not have to
conduct a debriefing even if it is feasible
B) The contracting officer is responsible for selecting a suitable location for the debriefing
C) It is appropriate to conduct debriefings by telephone or electronic means
D) Preparation for the debriefing must begin before proposal evaluation is complete
E) None of the above
68) Contractors have __________ to submit comments, rebutting information, or other information for the buying
activity’s consideration before the past performance assessments are made final.
A) 10 days
B) 14 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days
69) The PR should include the amount of funds and funding citation.
True
False
70) The elements of the Procurement Request are outlined in the FAR.
True
False
71) Inquiries on a solicitation must be made through the Freedom of Information Act process.
True
False
72) Contract award in sealed bidding can be made on the basis of both price and non-price factors.
True
False
73) Defense agencies may order data elements by placing the requirement in the SOW.
True
False
74) Instructions to Offerors for the RFP should be written last.
True
False
75) The contracting officer does not have to follow a Recommend-No Award finding from the DCMA.
True
False
76) The most important thing to keep in mind when writing a SOW is the most likely effect the written word will have
upon the reader.
True
False
77) An offeror without a record of relevant past performance is given a “neutral” past performance rating.
True
False
78) Generally, the fact that a proposal is deficient as submitted does not necessarily mean that it is excluded from
further consideration.
True
False
79) Long range planning need only be done by the firms who are suppliers of major systems.
True
False
80) Selling certain products below “cost” is forbidden by the regulations.
True
False
81) The profit or fee is a relatively small portion of the total cost of a government contract.
True
False
82) Government cost principles define a direct cost as a cost which is directly associated with the “final cost
objective.”
True
False
83) “Advertising costs” are never considered allowable costs.
True
False
84) Relocation costs are considered an allowable cost.
True
False
85) Each person at the negotiating table will represent the sum total of his/her past background and environment.
True
False
86) The performance-based statement of work includes “how-to” requirements.
True
False
87) Oral notice of an amendment to an RFP may be used when time is of the essence.
True
False
88) As the contractor’s work force gains experience with the item, spoilage costs should increase.
True
False
89)
ESSAY QUESTION: (50 points)
Describe the steps from both the buyer’s and new seller’s point of view for the process of “Getting on Contract”
for a negotiated procurement from the determination of need to contract award. For each step provide a
description of what must be done in each step. Remember some steps will be the buyer’s responsibility, some
steps the seller’s responsibility and certain steps have both buyer and seller responsibilities.
Please click on the link below to submit your answer file. Be sure to include your name, lesson number and
course number on your document